Dubai Health Authority Exam preparation
01.X-ray was discover in
a.
8th Nov. 1895 Ans
b. 8th Nov. 1496
c.
8th Nov. 1897
d. 8th Nov. 1898
02. Who Discovered X-ray
a. Wilhelm Conrad
Roentgen Ans
b. Madam Curie
c. Bloch and Felix
d. Coulomb
03. Wave length of Diagnostic
x-ray is
a. 1 to 0.1 A Ans
b. 1 to 10 A
c. 10 to 50 A
d. 50 to 100 A
04. SI unit of absorbed dose of
radiation
a. Rad
b. Gray Ans
c. Curie
d. Roentgen
05. SI unit of magnetic flux density
a. Tesla Ans
b. Weber
c. Curie
d. Roentgen
06. All are true Regarding X-ray
tube
a. Tube filled with helium gas Ans
b. Cathode and anode used of tungsten
c. Rotating anode used to withstand
generated heat
d. Pyrex glass used as encasing
07. Elecron (Electron) cloud produced at cathode filament by thermionic
emission is known as
a. Thomson effect
b. Edison effect Ans
c. Jule effect
d. Crompton effect.
08. Tungsten is used as filament and target
material due to all except
a. Low atomic
number (34) –so more
efficient producer of x-rays Ans
b. High melting
point (3370) – so
withstand high generated
heat
c. Little tendency to vaporize – so ling life expectancy of filament
d. Can be drawn into thin wire that is quite strong
09. Limit to anode angle
in x-ray tube is due to
a. Heel effect Ans
b. Edison effect
c. Jule effect
d. Crompton effect
10. Purpose of use
of rotating anode is
a. To produce more x-ray
b. To withstand high generated heat Ans
c. To produce air for cooling
d. To focus produced x-ray
11. Rotating anode is primarily
made up of
a. Cupper
b. Tungsten Ans
c. Silver
d. Ceramics
12. All are true regarding x-ray production except
a. Interaction with nucleus of the target produce
general radiation
b. Interaction with electrons in the inner shell of the target produce characteristic radiation
c. Atomic number of target determine the quality of radiation Ans
d. Molybdenum target used in breast radiography
13. General
radiations produced by interaction of target
is known as
a. General radiation (bremsstrahlung) Ans
b. Characteristic radiation
c. Both
d. None.
14. Ways of x-ray interaction with matter are all except
a. Coherent scattering
b. Photoelectric effect
c. Compton effect
d. Edison effect Ans
15. Which x-ray
interaction produce radiographic image of excellent quality
a. Pair production
b. Photoelectric effect Ans
c. Compton effect
d. Photodisintegration
16. Scatter
radiation encountered in diagnostic radiology comes from which interaction
a. Pair production
b. Photoelectric effect
c. Compton effect Ans
d. Photodisintegration
17. Purpose of filter is
a.
Reduce patients radiation dose Ans
b. To enhance x-ray production
c.
To protect anode from
heat
d.
To protect x-ray tube from voltage
fluctuation
18. All material may be used as
filter except
a. Molybdenum
b. Cupper
c. Aluminum
d. Tungsten Ans
19. Purpose of using beryllium window is
a. Reduce patients
radiation dose
b. To produce unfiltered x-ray beam Ans
c. To protect anode from heat
d.
To protect x-ray tube from voltage
fluctuation
20. Which material
is used as filter in breast
mammography
a. Molybdenum Ans
b. Cupper
c. Aluminum
d. Tungsten
21. Which material is used as filter
a. Beryllium
b. Zinc
c. Aluminum Ans
d. Tungsten
22. The reduction in the intensity of an x-ray beam as it traverses matter is known as
a. Filtration
b. Attenuation Ans
c. Scattering
d. None
23. Factors affecting attenuation
a. Energy of x-ray
b. Density of matter
c. Atomic number and electrons/gram
of matter
d. All Ans
24. Half value layer in radiography refers to
a. Absorber thickness Ans
b. Absorber atomic
number
c. Absorber density
d. Absorber volume
25. All can be used K-edge filter
except
a. Aluminum Ans
b. Holmium
c. Molybdenum
d. Gadolinium
26. Barium and iodine is used as contrast
agent because of
a. K edge Ans
b. Availability
c. Cheapness
d. Low toxicity
27. All are true regarding filters except
a. Sheets of metal
b. Placed in path of x-ray beam near the x-ray tube housing
c. Absorb high energy
radiation Ans
d. Reduce patient exposure
to useless radiation
28. Recommended thickness
of aluminum filter for
diagnostic radiography
|
a. 2.5mm |
Ans |
|
b. 3.5mm |
|
|
c. 4.5mm |
|
|
d. 5.5mm |
|
29. Devices attached
to opening in the x-ray tube housing to regulate
size and shape of an x-ray beam is
a. Filter
b. Target
c. Filament
d. Beam restrictors Ans
30. All are beam restrictors except
a. Filter Ans
b. Aperture diaphragms
c. Cones and diaphragms
d. Collimators
31. Which regulate
size and shape of x-ray beam
a. Collimators Ans
b. Filter
c. Target
d. Grid
32. The radiographic device consisting of a
series of lead foil strips
seprated by x- ray transparent spacers is known as
a. Collimators
b. Filter
c. Grid Ans
d. Target
33. The most
effective of removing scatter radiation from large
radiographic field is
a. Collimators
b. Filter
c. Target
d. Grid Ans
34. Bucky factor is related to
a. Collimators
b. Filter
c. Target
d. Grid Ans
35. All are located near/in X-ray tube except
a. Collimator
b. Filament
c. Target
d. Grid Ans
36. All are true regarding intensifying screen except
a. Located in pair x-ray cassett
b. Calcium tungsten serves as phosphor
c. Decrease x-ray dose to patient
d. Requires higher exposure (more mAs) Ans
37. Light sensitive
material in emulsion
of x- ray film is made up of
a. Gelatin
b. Silver iodobromide Ans
c. Polyester
d. Cellulose nitrate
38. Developing solutions used in radiography contain all except
a. Developing agen
b. An acid Ans
c. Preservative (sodium sulfite)
d. Preservative (sodium sulfite)
39. Developing agents used in radiography is all except
a. Hydroquinone
b. Phenindone
c. Metol
d. Potassium bromide Ans
40. Which is used as fixer in radiography
a. Sodium or ammonium thiosulphate Ans
b. Hydroquinone
c. Phenindone
d. Sodium sulfite
41. Which control image contrast
a. Exposure (mAs)
b. kVp Ans
c. voltage of current
source
42. What controls film density
a. Exposure (mAs) Ans
b. kVp
c. voltage of current source
d. All
43. The speed of film-screen system is defined as the of the exposure
in
roentgens to produce a density of 1.0
above base plus fog density
a. Proportional Ans
b. Reciprocal
c. Both depending in multiple factors
44. Ortho x-ray film is sensitive to
a. Green Ans
b. Red
c. Both
d. Both
45. Plan x-ray film is sensitive to
a. All light colors Ans
b. Only red color
c. Only blue color
d. Only violet color
46. Darkroom safelight for ortho film is
a. Amber
b. Red Ans
c. Green
d. Blue
47. Amount of blackening of an x-ray film is expressed the term
a. Contrast
b. Photographic density Ans
c. Speed of film
d. Film gamma
48. Which is used as input phosphor
in image intensifier in
radiology
a. Cesium iodide Ans
b. Calcium tungsten
c. Zinc-cadmium sulfite
d. Titanium oxide
49. Which is used as output phosphor
in image intensifier in radiology
a. Cesium iodide
b. Calcium tungsten
c. Zinc-cadmium sulfite Ans
d. Titanium oxide
50. Term used for difference in density between areas
in the radiograph is
a. Contrast Ans
b. Photographic density
c. Speed of film
d. Film gamma
51. Effect of fog and scatter on film is
a. To reduce radiographic contrast Ans
b. To reduce radiographic density
c. To increase radiographic clarity
d. All
52. Radiographic contrast
depend on
a. Subject contrast
b. Film contrast
c. Scatter radiation plus fog
d. All Ans
53. The production of visible image utilizing
the charged surface of a photoconductor
(Amorphous selenium) is known as
a. Xeroradiography Ans
b. Fluoroscopy
c. Tomography
d. Stereoscopy
54. Who discovered Computerized axial transverse
scanning in 1972
a. G.N Hounsfield Ans
b. Oldendorf
c. Chester F. Carlson
d. Kuhi and Edwards
55. All the
true regarding different generation of CT scan expect
a.
1st generation (translate - rotate, one detector)
b.
2nd generation (translate - rotate, multiple detector
c.
3rd generation (rotate –
fixed)
Ans
d. 4th generation (rotate - fixed)
56. As the true regarding 3rd and 4th generation CT scan except
a. Both x ray tube and detectors rotate around the patient (rotate –
rotate) in 3rd generation.
b. X-ray collimated into a fan beam (use of ‘fan beam’ geometry) in 3rd
generation and 4rd generation
c. A ring of detectors around the patient which does not move in 4th
generation
d. The X-ray tube rotates
in a circle outside the detectors ring a in 4th
generation Ans
57. Back projection, iterative methods, and analytical methods used in CT are
meant for
a. Image acquisition
b. Image reconstruction Ans
c. Image display
d. Image retrieval
58. CT number refers to
a. Relationship between the linear absorption co efficient of pixel and fat linear attenuation co efficient
b. Relationship between the linear absorption coefficient of a pixel and
water liner attenuation coefficient
Ans
c. Relationship between the linear absorption coefficient of a pixel and
protein linear attention coefficient
d. Relationship between the linear absorption coefficient of a pixel and
fat and water linear attenuation coefficients
59. CT number is calculated by formula
a. Magnification constant (pixel
linear attenuation constant + water linear attenuation constant) / water
linear attenuation constant
b. Magnification constant (pixel
linear attenuation constant x water linear attenuation constant) / water
linear attenuation constant
c. Magnification constant (pixel
linear attenuation constant - water linear attenuation constant) / water
linear attenuation constant Ans
d. Magnification constant (pixel
linear attenuation constant - fat linear attenuation constant) / fat
linear attenuation constant
60. Contradictions of MR imaging
are (H)
a. Internal defibrillator device
b. Bone growth stimulators
c. Spinal cord stimulators
d. All Ans
61. Contradictions of MR imaging
are (H)
a. Electronic infusion devices
b. Ocular metallic foreign body
c. Tattooed eyeliner
d. All Ans
62. Contradictions of MR imaging are (H)
a. Mc Gee stapedectomy piston prostheses
b. Swan Ganz catheter
c. Magnetic dental implants
d. All Ans
63. All the true regarding
MR angiography except (H)
a. Vascular map rather
than anatomical map
b. Fast flowing blood returns no signal
(flow void) on routine T1 or T2 sin echo image
c. Most frequently used technique is Time of fight
d. Higher patial resolution than conventional film-based Ans
64. CT can display objects
with density difference of
a. 0.5% or less Ans
b.1.0% or less
c. 1.5% or less
d. 2.0% or less
65. For film- screen radiography a density difference
of ---% is required for constant resolution
a. 1.0%
b. 10% Ans
c. 15%
d. 20%
66. Ultrasound ,by definition has a frequency of greater than
a. 10000 Hz
b. 20000 Hz Ans
c. 30000 Hz
d. 40000 Hz
67. A device
used to convert electrical energy
into ultrasonic and reflected ultrasonic energy into electrical signal is
known
a. Transducer Ans
b. Transformer
c. Gradient
d. Radiofrequency coil
68. The principle of piezoelectricity is used
in
a. Digital radiography
b. CT
c. USG Ans
d. MRI
69. The most important component
of transducer is
a. Piezoelectric crystal Ans
b. Radiofrequency coil
c. Gradients
d. None
70. Curie temperature is related
to
a. Transducer of USG Ans
b. Transformer of x-ray machine
c. Heat generated in the body by
MRI
d. Heat produced in x-ray tube
71. Concept of acoustic independence is related to
a. MRI
b. CT
c. USG Ans
d. PET
72. Doppler effect refers to
a. Change in perceived frequency of sound emitted by a moving structures Ans
b. Change in perceived intensity of sound emitted by a moving structures
c. Change in perceived velocity of sound emitted by a moving structures
d. Change in perceived frequency of sound emitted by a stationary structures
73. Doppler USG is primarily used for
a. Study of blood vessel Ans
b. Study of liver
c. Study of spleen
d. Study of pancreas
74. Unit of biological effectiveness of radiation
a. Roentgen
b. Rad and gray
c. Rem and Sievert Ans
d. None
75. SI unite of absorbed
dose of radiation
a. Rad
b. Rem
c. Gray Ans
d. Sievert
76. SI unite of absorbed dose equivalent
a. Rad
b. Rem
c. Gray
d. Sievert Ans
77. All are true regarding stochastic effect of radiation except
a. Probability of occurrence increase with increasing absorbed dose
b. Severity of the effect depend on the magnitude of the absorbed dose Ans
c. No dose threshold
d. An all-or-none phenomenon
78. The stochastic effect of radiation is
a. Cancer
b. Genetic effect Ans
c. Both
d. None
79. The first imaging technique of MRI is attributable to
a. Hounsfield
b. Lauterbur Ans
c. Felich and bloch
d. None
80. Gyromagnetic ratio and larmor
frequency are related to physics of
a. USG
b. CT
c. MRI Ans
d. PET
81. MRI make use of all except
a. Magnet
b. Radiofrequency coil
c. Gradient coils
d. Transducer Ans
82. Gas which is used in MRI for cooling is
a.
Helium Ans
b. Nitrogen
c.
Oxygen
d. Hydrogen
83. The temperature at which entire
magnetic system must be maintained is
a.
About 4 degree Kelvin Ans
b. About 8 degree Kelvin
c.
About 12 degree Kelvin
d.
About 16 degree kelvin
84. The superconducting material used in magnet of MRI is
a. NbTi Ans
b. SbTi
c. CdTi
d. AlTi
85. Magnetic resonance imaging is based
on
a. Precession of proton Ans
b. Precession of electron
c. Precession neutron
d. Precession of positron
86. Larmon frequency of 1H is
a. 29.16 MHz/T
b. 40.05 MHz/T
c. 42.58 MHz/T Ans
d. 17.24 MHz/T
87. All are true regarding MRI except
a. T1 weighted image uses a short TE and sort TR
b. T2 weighted image uses a long TE and long TR
c. Spin density images
use short TR and long TR
d. T1 weighted image use long TR and short TR Ans
88. Which weighted
image is used for
display of anatomy
a. T1W Ans
b. T2W
c. Spin density image
d. All
89. Which
weighted image is most commonly used when looking for tumour
a. T1W
b. T2W Ans
c. Spin density image
d. All
90. Which molecule
in body provide
the best MRI signal
a. Hydrogen Ans
b. Nitrogen
c. Carbon
d. Oxygen
91. MRI make use of
a. Microwave
b. Radio wave Ans
c. Infrared
d. All
92. Earth’s magnetic
field is about
a. 100 microT Ans
b. 50 microT
c. 1000 microT
d. 500 microT
93. Which tissue
has relatively smallest
T1 recovery time
a. Water
b. Compact bone
c. CSF
d. Fat Ans
94. Which tissue has relatively longest T2 decay-
a. Water Ans
b. Compact bone
c. CSF
d. Fat
95. Which tissue
has relatively smallest
T1 recovery time and smallest T2 decay
a. Water
b. Compact bone
c. CSF
d. Fat Ans
96. Which tissue
has relatively longest
T2 decay and longest T1 recovery
a. Water Ans
b. Compact bone
c. CSF
d. Fat
97. All are correct regarding signal on MRI
a. Fat appears dark on T1W and bright on T2W
b. Water and CSF appear dark on T2W
c. Water and CSF appear bright than fat on T2W Ans
d. CSF and fat appear bright on proton density
98. All are true regarding signal of brain tissue except
a. Gray matter appear
brighter than white matter on
proton density weighted image
b. Gray matter appear
brighter than white matter on
T2W weighted image
c. White matter appear
brighter than gray matter on
T1W weighted image
d. Gray matter appear brighter than white matter on T1 weighted image
Ans
99. Which is used for slice selection
and thickness
a. Superconducting coil
b. Radiofrequency coil
c. Gradients Ans
d. None
100.
Tip angle concept is useful in
a. USG
b. MRI Ans
c. CT
d. PET
101.
In GRE sequence
of MRI, all moving
blood appears
a. Bright Ans
b. Dark
c. Signal void
d. None
102.
TOF and phase contrast are methods of angiography in
a. Catheter angiography
b. CT angiography
c. MR angiography Ans
d. None
103.
Which contrast is used in perfusion
study in MRI
a.
Iodine
b. Barium
c. Gadolinium Ans
d. None
104.
Claustrophobia is a specific side effect
of
a. CT
b. MRI Ans
c. USG
d. X-ray
105.K-edge of barium is
a. 20 keV Ans
b. 50 keV
c. 37 keV
d. 88 keV
106. The device
used to measure
radiation dose is
a. Dosimeter Ans
b. Ammeter
c. Polari meter
d. Photometer
107. Critical molecules for radiation damage
a. Proteins like enzymes
b. Nucleic acid principally DNA
c. Both Ans
d. Npne
108. Threshold dose of radiation for cataracts
a. 1 gray
b. 2 gray
c. 3 gray
d. 5 gray Ans
109. Typical absorbed
dose in PA view of chest
a. 0.15mGy Ans
b. 0.50mGy
c. 0.75mGy
d. 1.0mGy
110. The MRI technique used to null signal
from fluids is -
a. FLAIR Ans
b. STIR
c. GRE
d. Spin-echo
111. The MRI technique used to null signal
from fat is -
a. FLAIR
b. STIR Ans
c. GRE
d. Spin-echo
112. ALARA stands for -
a. As low as reasonably achievable Ans
b. As least as reasonably achievable
c.
As low as rationally achievable
d. As least as reasonably achievable
113. Typical a dose CT head scan
a. 1mSv
b. 2mSv Ans
c. 3mSv
d. 4mSv
114. ALARA in radioprotection stands
for
a. As least as reasonably achievable Ans
b. As low as rationally achievable
c. As light as reasonably practicable
d. As low as reasonably permissible
115. Annual dose limit for public
a. 1mSv Ans
b. 2mSv
c. 3mSv
d. 4mSv
116. Annual dose limit for employees
a. 10mSv Ans
b. 20mSv
c. 30mSv
d. 40mSv
117. Annual dose
limit for employees for abdomen of women of reproductive capacity (in any consecutive 3-months period)
a. 10mSv
b. 13mSv Ans
c. 20mSv
d. 25mSv
118. Annual dose limit for fetus of pregnant
employee
a. 1mSv Ans
b. 2mSv
c. 3mSv
d. 4mSv
119. Target material
for mammography x-ray tube
a. Molybdenum
b. Rhodium
c. Both a and b Ans
d. Tungsten
120. All are true regarding digital Radiography
a. Computed radiography use barium flurohalide doped with europium as photostimulable phosphor
b. Cesium iodide (indirect) and amorphous selenium (direct) are used as detectors in digital radiography
c. Both Ans
d. None
121. All are true regarding approximate range of CT Numbers except
a. Bone 500to 1500
b. Grey matter 35 to 45
c. Lung -300 to -800
d. Fat 60 to 150 Ans
122. All are true regarding helical CT scan except
a. Use of slip ring technology
b. Continuous rotating of gantry
c. Continuous acquisition of data
d. Longer scan of time Ans
123. Correctly matched
half-lives are all except
a. Technetium -99m------- 6hrs
b. Iodine 123---------------- 13hrs
c. Iodine 131---------- 8days
d. Iodide -------------60hrs Ans
124. Gamma rays are emitted
by
a. 99mTc
b. 123l
c. Both Ans
d. None
125. All are correct use of Technetium linked molecule except
a. Methylene diphosphonate for bone imaging
b. HMPAO for cerebral imaging
c. DMSA and MAG3 for renal studies
d. HIDA for cardiac function Ans
126. All are correct use of Technetium linked molecule except
a. HAS macro-aggregates for lung perfusion study
b. DTPA aerosol for lung ventilation studies
c. HIDA for biliary study
d. Sestamibi or tetrofosmin for cerebral imaging Ans
127. Which radionuclide is used in PET
a. Beta emitter
b. Gamma emitter
c. Alpha emitter
d. Positron emitter Ans
128. Positron emitter is
a. 18F Ans
b. 99mTc
c. 123l
d. None
129. True regarding transducer of ultrasound is
a. Made up of piezo-electric material Ans
b. Loses piezo-electricity below curie temperature
c. Should be autoclave for sterilizatio
d. Generally should be immerged in water for cleaning
130. The Fresnel region and the Fraunhofer region is related to
a. USG Ans
b. MRI
c. PET
d. SPECT
131. Coupling gel is used in ultrasound
a. Increase speed of ultrasound
b. To remove air bubbles
between transducer and patient surface
Ans
c. To remove patients discomfort
d. For easy movement of transducer
132. Contrast agent used in ultrasound
imaging is
a. Iodide
b. Gadolinium
c. Omnipaque
d. Low solubility gas Ans
133. Effective dose for CT head is
a. 50 chest x-ray
b. 100 chest x-ray Ans
c. 150 chest x-ray
d. 175 chest x-ray
134. Imaging of blood flow by ultrasound is based on
a. Edison effect
b. Doppler effect Ans
c. Crompton effect
d. Heel effect
135. PACS refers to
a. Patient archiving and communication system
b. A Picture archiving and computation system
c. Picture archiving and communication system Ans
d. Patient archiving and computation system
136. Iodinated nonionic
monomer contras
a. Coray
b. Omnipaque Ans
c. Hexabrix
d. Visipaque
137. Iodinated nonionic
dimer contrast is
a. Coray
b. Omnipaque
c. Hexabrix Ans
d. Visipaque
138. In radiation therapy, major mode of
interaction of photons with tissues
a. Compton scattering Ans
b. Photoelectric effect
c. Pair-production
d. All
139. Acoustic shadowing
on USG is noted in
a. Stone Ans
b. Cyst
c. Solid tumor
d. All
140. Acoustic enhancement on USG is noted
in
a. Stone
b. Cyst Ans
c. Solid tumor
d. All
141. All are true regarding radiation except
a. Radiation exposure may be natural (50%) or manmade (50%)
b. Radon gas account for majority of (37%) natural radiation exposure
c. CT account for 50% of manmade radiation exposure
d. CT is Responsible for 5% of all radiation exposure Ans
142. All imaging uses radiation except (H)
a. X-ray
b. CT
c. PET
d. USG Ans
143. Unit of radiation absorbed dose is (H)
a. Curie (common unit) and Becquerel (new unit)
b. Rem (common unit) and Sievert (new unit)
c. Roentgen
d. Rad (common unit) and Gray (new unit) Ans
144. Unit of equivalent dose and effective dose for biologic response to radiation is (H)
a. Curie and Becquerel a.curie (common unit) and Becquerel (new unit)
b. Rem (common unit) and Sievert (new unit) Ans
c. Roentgen
d. Rad (common unit) and Gray (new unit)
145. Unit of radiation exposure
a. Curie (common
unit) and Becquerel (new unit)
b. Rem (common
unit) and Sievert
(new unit)
c. Roentgen Ans
d. Rad (common
unit) and Gray (new
unit)
146. Unit of radioactivity (H)
a. Curie (common unit)
and Becquerel (new unit) Ans
b. Rem (common unit) and Sievert (new unit)
c. Roentgen
d. Rad (common unit) and Gray (new unit)
147. 1 gray = ?rad
(H)
a. 1 rad
b. 10 rad
c. 100 rad Ans
d. 1000 rad
148. 1 Sievert =?rem (H)
a. 1 rem
b. 10 rem
c. 100 rem Ans
d. 1000 rem
149. All are true regarding
stochastic effect of
radiation except (H)
a. Occur at any dose
b. No threshold
c. Probability increases with increasing dose
d. Of less concern than deterministic effect Ans
150. Correct
matching for deterministic effect and its threshold are all except(H)
a. Temporary epilation---- 200 rad
b. Permanent epilation---- 700 rad
c. Acute cataract----------- 200 rad
d. Transient erythema---50 rad Ans
151. All are true regarding radiation(H)
a. Effect primarily from effect on DNA
b. Children 10 more
sensitive than adult
c. Boys more sensitive than girls Ans
d. Dose generally
used in diagnostic radiology <0.1 gray
152. Hematopoietic
syndrome result from acute whole-body radiation
doses above
a. 200 rad Ans
b. 150 rad
c. 100 rad
d. 50 rad
153. Gastrointestinal
syndrome results from acute whole-body radiation
doses above
a. 200 rad
b. 400 rad
c. 800 rad Ans
d. 600 rad
154. Drugs used
in case of internal contamination with cesium and thallium
a. Prussian blue Ans
b. Potassium iodide
c. Oral phosphate
d. Ammonium chloride
155. MRI is a technique based on magnetic properties of (H)
a. Oxygen nuclei
b. Hydrogen nuclei Ans
c. Carbon nuclei
d. Nitrogen nuclei
156. Disadvantage of CT (SW)
a. Significant Radiation
b. Annot be used during pregnancy
c. Contrast allergy
d. All Ans
157. All are true regarding Doppler USG
a. Detect presence of blood
vessel
b. Determine direction of blood
flow
c. Determine velocity of blood
flow
d. All Ans
158. All are true regarding MRI except (SW)
a. Magnetic field align
the hydrogen atoms in the body
b. Magnetic waves alter
the alignment of
magnetization
c. Different tissue absorbed
and release radio waves energy at similar rates Ans
d. Most tissues can be differentiated by differences in their characteristic T1 and T1 relaxation
times
159. All are true regarding MRI except
a. T1 is a measure of how quickly
a tissue can become magnetized
b. T2 measure how quickly a tissue
loss its magnetized
c. Breath-holding imaging technique increases motion artifact
d. Gadopentetate dimeglumine is an
MRI contrast agent Ans
160. All are MRI contrast
agent except (SW)
a. Gadopentetate dimeglumine
b. Ferumoxides
c. Iminodiacetic acid derivative- radionuclides
d. Omnipaque Ans
161. Metabolic molecule
used in PET imaging (SW)
a. Fluorodeoxyglucose Ans
b. Gadopentetate dimeglumine
c. Ferumoxides
d. Iminodiacetic acid
derivatives
162. Advantages of USG are all
except
a. Noninvasive
b. Painless
c. No radiation
d. Easy to examine obese
patient Ans
163. All
hepato-biliary specific agent are taken up by reticuloendothelial system except -
a. Ferrumoxides
b. SHU-555A
c. AMI-227
d. Mn-DPDP Ans
164. All are hepato-specific paramagnetic agent except -
a. Mn-DPDP
b. Gd-BOPTA
c. Gd-EOB-DTPA
d. Ferrum oxides Ans
165. All are true regarding digital radiography are tall except (H)
a. No possibility of post processing Ans
b. Immediate availability of images
c. Electronic storages
d. Facility of transfer
166. Advantages of CT scan over the routine
chest radiography are all except(H)
a. Distention between densities
b. Characterization of tissue densities
c. Accurate size assessment of lesions
d. Less radiation exposure Ans
167. True regarding helical CT technology
a. Allows collection of continuous dta over large areas
b. Reconstruction of data to produce sagittal/ coronal planes
c. Virtual bronchoscopy possible
d. Thicker collimation Ans
168. Effects of helical CT technology are all except (H)
a. Faster scan ( single breath holding maneuver)
b. Improved contrast enhancement
c. Thinner collimation
d. More motion artifact Ans
169. All are true regarding multi-detector CT(MCDT) except (H)
a. Additional detector along
scanning axis (z-axis)
b. Especially beneficial for children, the elderly
and critically ill patients
c. Less radiation as compared to single
detector CT Ans
d. Improved imaging of pulmonary
vasculatures
170. True regarding MDCT (H)
a. Enhanced resolution
b. Increased image reconstruction ability
c. Shorter breath holds
d. All Ans
171. All are true regarding MRI (H)
a. Avoided in unstable
and / or ventilated patients
b. Pacemaker and aneurysm
clip precludes use of MRI
c. The use of nonionizing electromagnetic radiation
d. Contrast always needed to distinguish vascular
from non- vascular structure Ans
172. Intravascular contrast agent used for MR angiography is (H)
a. Gadolinium Ans
b. Gastrografin
c. Iodinated contrast
d. Barium
173. FDG is used in (H)
a. MDCT
b. MRA
c. PET SCAN Ans
d. Ventilation perfusion scan
174. 18F-FDG emit (SW)
a. Alpha particle
b. Bata particle
c. Gamma rays
d. Positron Ans
175. Which MR sequence is Sensitive to the microscopic motion of water(H)
a. Diffusion MR Ans
b. Perfusion MR
c. MR spectroscopy
d. Functional MR
176. All are true regarding alpha radiation except
a. Negatively charged particles Ans
b. Contains two protons and two neutrons
c. Limited penetrating power (cannot penetrate skin)
d. Small risk external exposure
177. All are true regarding beta radiation except
a. Consists of electrons
b. Few cm of penetration Ans
c. Plastic layers and clothing stop most of beta radiation
d. Releases by radioactive iodine
178. All are true regarding Gamma rays and x-rays except
a. No change
b. No Mass
c. Just energy
d. Different biologic effect Ans
179. The principle type of radiation that cause total body exposure
a. X-ray and Gamma rays Ans
b. Alpha particle
c. Beta particle
d. None
180. Penetrating radiations are
a. X-rays
b. Gamma rays
c. Both Ans
d. None
181.P-32 emit only
a. Alpha particles
b. Beta particles Ans
c. Gamma rays
d. Neutrons
182. Radiologic half-life of technetium is
a. 6 hours Ans
b. 16 hours
c. 12 hours
d. 2 hours
183. Correct matching for biological half-life are all except
a. Iodine 123 - 33hours Ans
b. Molybdenum - 66.7 days
c. Iodine 131- 8.1 days
d. Phosphorus 32 – 14.3 days
184. Without medical support, LD50/30 (a dose that causes a 50% mortality at 30 days) for whole-day exposure is
a. Approx. 1 gray
b. Approx. 4 gray Ans
c. Approx. 8 gray
d. Approx. 10 gray
185. All are true regarding acute radiation syndrome (ARS)
a. ARS is mild with exposure to < 5gray Ans
b. Whole body exposure with doses>9-10 gray is almost always fatal
c. Neurovascular syndrome predominate with whole body exposure >20gray
d. Haemopoietic syndrome predominate with whole body exposure to 6-10 gray
186. Whole body cell show most rapid decline after radiation exposure
a. Lymphocyte Ans
b. Platelets
c. Neutrophil
d. Erythrocyte
187. The least vulnerable blood element to radiation exposure
a. Lymphocyte
b. Platelets
c. Neutrophil
d. Erythrocyte Ans
188. All are true regarding
lymphocyte in radiation
exposure
a. Absolute lymphocyte count
is a sensitive marker for
radiation damage
b. Absolute lymphocyte count correlate with exposure but not
prognosis Ans
c. Lymphocyte chromosomal analysis detect radiation exposure as low
as
.03-.06 gray
d. Dicentric chromosome and ring forma aberration noted
in lymphocyte after radiation
exposure
189. Relative contraindications of MRI are
a. Pacemakers
b. Internal defibrillator
c. Cerebral aneurysm clip
d. All Ans
190. Incidence of severe anaphylactoid reactions due to contrast is (H)
a. 0.1% to 0.2% Ans
b. 0.3% to 0.4%
c. 0.5% to 0.6%
d. 0.7% to 0.9%
191. True about contrast induced nephropathy are all except (H)
a. Increase in creatine > 0.5mg/dl within 48-72hours of contrast administration
b. Occurs in 20% of patients Ans
c. MD and CHF are risk factors
d. Intravascular volume expansion limits the risk
192. A modem CT scanner is capable of obtaining slice thickness as thin as (H)
a. 0.5mm -1mm Ans
b. 2mm - 2.5mm
c. 3mm - 3.5mm
d. 4mm - 4.5mm
193. Radiation exposure
for routine brain CT
study is (H)
|
a. 2-5mSv |
Ans |
|
|
b. 6-7mSV c. 8-10mSv |
|
|
|
d. 11-12mSv |
|
|
|
|
|
|
194. Contrast nephropathy is define by a rise of serum creatinine of a least ------ mg/dl within 48hrs of contrast administration
a. 1mg/dl Ans
b. 2mg/dl
c. 3mg/dl
d. 4mg/dl
195. Risk factors for contrast nephropathy include all except(H)
a. Age>80 years
b. Serum creatinine exceeding 2mg/dl
c. Solitary kidney
d. Diabetes insipidus Ans
196. Risk factors for contrast nephropathy include all except(H)
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Paraproteinemia
c. Over hydration Ans
d. High dose of contrast
197. All are true contrast nephropathy except(H)
a. Usually need dialysis Ans
b. Serum creatinine level return to baseline within 1-2weeks
c. Risk of nephropathy increases with estimated GFR<60ml/min/1.73m2
d. Hydration, bicarbonate, acetyl cysteine reduce contras nephropathy
198. In what % of cases severe
allergic reactions is noted with nonionic iodinated contrast (H)
a. 0.04%, six fold lower than with
ionic media Ans
b. 0.08%, eight fold lower than with
ionic media
c. 0.10%, eight fold lower than with
ionic media
d. 0.12%, six fold lower than with ionic media
c. Patients
with allergic reaction to iodinated contrast usually react to gadolinium based
MR contrast Ans
d. Nonionic contrast
relatively costly
200. MRI image is result of Interaction of except(H)
a. Hydrogen protons in biologic tissue
b. A static magnetic field (magnet)
c. Radiofrequency waves of specific frequency Ans
d. Earth’s magnetic field
201. All are true about MRI except(H)
a. Coils produce radiofrequency
b. Magnetic gradients help in spatial localization
c. Field strength of magnet is not directly related
to signal to noise
ratio Ans
d. 3T -8T magnets
available
202. All are true regarding
MRI imaging except (H)
a. Rf pluses
transiently excites energy states of hydrogen protons
b. Hydrogen protons
release Rf energy (echo) during relaxation
c. Echo is detected by gradients Ans
d. Fourier analysis
is used to form
image
203. All are true regarding
MR angiography except (H)
a. Phase contrast MRA take longer time than TOF
b. Phase contrast MRA reveal velocity and direction of blood flow
c. Phase contrast MRA provide excellent suppression of high signal- intensity background structures
d. Selective venous and arterial MRA images cannot be obtained with phase contrast MRA Ans
204. All are true regarding T1-weighted image expect (H)
a. Use of relatively short TR and TE
b. Fat and sub-acute hemorrhage has relatively short T1 relaxation time
c. Fat and sub-acute hemorrhage produce relatively higher signal intensity
d. Water gives bright signal Ans
205. All are true about gadolinium except
a. Heavy metal element
b. Paramagnetic substance
c. Used as MR contrast agent
d. Increase T1 and T2 relaxation time of nearby water protons Ans
206. All are true about DTPA contrast except (H)
a. Chelated to DTPA which allows safe renal excretion
b. Dose is approx. 0.2mg/Kg body weight
c. Does not generally cross BBB
d. Produce low signal on T1 and High signal on T2 Ans
207. All are true regarding gadolinium contrast except (H)
a. Enhance lesions lacking BBB
b. Cause renal failure Ans
c. Avoided in < 6months of age
d. Nephrogenic system fibrosis in patients with renal insufficiency
208. Contraindications of MR imaging are all except(H)
a. Cardiac pacemaker or permanent pacemakers leads
b. Intracranial aneurysm
c. Cochlear prostheses
d. Ferromagnetic IVC filters, coils, stents (six weeks after implantation) Ans
209. Maximum radiation exposure is noted in
a. Bone scan Ans
b. CT
c. MRI
d. Chest x-ray
210. Which show maximum ionization potential
a. Helium ion Ans
b. X (y)-ray
c. Electron
d. Proton
211. Systematic Radionuclides are all except
a. Samarium 153
b. Strontium 89
c. Phosphorus 32
d. Iridium 192 Ans
212. Radio-contrast is contraindicated in all except
a. Hypovolemia
b. Chronic renal insufficiency
c. Metformin treatment
d. Obesity Ans
213. Photoelectric effect refers to interaction between
a. Low energy incident photon and the outer shell electron
b. Low energy incident photon and the inner shell electron Ans
c. High energy incident photon and the outer shell electron
d. High energy incident photon and the inner shell electron
214. Compton effect refers to interaction between
a. Low energy incident photon and the outer shell electron
b. Low energy incident photon and the inner shell electron
c. High energy incident photon and the outer shell electron Ans
d. High energy incident photon and the inner shell electron
215.Wall of CT scanner room is coated
with
a. Iron
b. Lead Ans
c. Glass
d. Tungsten
216.The difference between
light and x-ray is
a. Type of wave
b. Speed
c. Energy Ang
d. Mass
217.The most ionizing radiation is
a. Alpha Ans
b. Beta
c. X-rays
d. Gamma rays
218.Background Radiation refers to
a. Radiation in the background of nuclear reactors
b. Radiation present constantly form natural resources Ans
c. Radiation in the background of radiological investigations
d. Radiation from Nuclear fallout
219. Aomunt of
radiation delivered to an organ in the radiation field is known as
a. Exposure dose
b.
Effective dose
c. Equivalent dose
d.
Absorbed dose Ans
220.True regarding stochastic effect
a. Severity dose dependent Ans
b. Probability dose dependent
c. Has threshold
d. Erythema and cataract are examples
221.True statement regarding contrast agent is-
a. Osmolar contrast agents may be ionic or nonionic
b. Gadolinium cross BBB
c. Iohexol is a high contrast media
d. Ionic monomers have three iodine atoms/two particles in solution Ans
222.Dose of radiation during whole body exposure that leads to hematological
syndrome is
a. 2Gy An
b. 10Gy
c. 100G
d. 200Gy
223.All are true regarding magic angle phenomenon in MRI imaging except(G)
a. Artefactual increased signal from tendons on short TE imaging sequence
b. Angle of alignment of tendon to static magnet field is approx.55degree
c. Magnetic angle effect is not seen in ligament, cartilage or menisci Ans
d. Magic angle effect is not persistent on long TE sequence
224.Black synovium on MRI is noted in all
except (G)
a. Pigmented villonodullar synovitis
b. Amyloid deposition
c. Hemophiliac arthropathy
d. Rheumatoid arthritis Ans
225.Appearance of water/edema in MRI imaging(G)
a. Dark on T1W
b. Bright on T2W
c. Both Ans
d. None
226.Which MR sequence is sensitive to the microscopic motion of water(H)
a. Diffusion MR Ans
b. Perfusion MR
c. MR spectroscopy
d. Functional MR
227.What is the most sensitive technique for detecting acute ischemic stroke(H)
a. Diffusion MR
b. Perfusion MR Ans
c. MR spectroscopy
d. Functional MR
228.What is the most sensitive technique for detecting acute ischemic stroke(H)
a. Diffusion MR Ans
b. Perfusion MR
c. MR spectroscopy
d. Functional MR
229.Which MR sequence is Sensitive to the microscopic motion of water(H)
a. Diffusion MR Ans
b. Perfusion MR
c. MR spectroscopy
d. Functional MR
230.CT scan is a paramagnetic choice for initial evaluation of all except(H)
a. Acute changes in mental status
b. Suspected stroke /hemorrhage
c. Intracranial/spinal trauma
d. Multiple sclerosis Ans
231.What is paramagnetic choice for initial evaluation of intracranial trauma/spinal trauma (H)
a. CT scan Ans
b. MRI
c. X-ray
d. Nuclear scan
232.All are true regarding role of MRI and
CT except (H)
a. In general, CT is more sensitive than MRI
for lesions of CNS Ans
b. MRI is more sensitive than CT for lesions
of spinal cord, cranial nerves posterior fossa structures
c. CT is more sensitive than MRI for fine
osseos detail
d. CT is more indicated in initial evaluation of conducting hearing loss
233.MRI with contrast is recommended technique for all except(H)
a. Neoplasm (Primary/metastatic)
b. Infection/abscess
c. Cranial neuropathy/ meningeal disease
d. Acute trauma Ans
234.MRI with coronal T2 imaging is recommended in(H)
a. Partial complex/refractory seizure Ans
b. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
c. Aneurysm
d. Acute trauma
235.Recommended technique for sub- acute/chronic hemorrhage is(H)
a. MRI Ans
b. CT
c. Nuclear scan
d. None
236.Recommended technique for acute parenchymal hemorrhage is(H)
a. MRI
b. CT
c. Both Ans
d. None
237.Recommended technique for subarachnoid hemorrhage are all except
a. CT and CTA
b. Lumber puncture
c. Angiography
d. Nuclear scan Ans
238.Recommended technique for aneurysm is (H)
a. Angiography Ans
b. CTA
c. MRA
d. None
239.Recommended technique for hemorrhagic infarction is (H)
a. CT
b. MRI
c. Both Ans
d. None
240.Recommended technique for vertebral/carotid dissection is (H)
a. MRI/MRA Ans
b. CTA
c. Both
d. None
241.CTA is Recommended in (H)
a. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
b. Vertebral basilar insufficiency
c. Carotid stenosis
d. Multiple sclerosis Ans
242.MRI+ Gradient echo imaging is recommended in (H)
a. White matter disorder
b. Demyelinating diseasec.
c. Shear injury/chronic hemorrhage Ans
d. Headache
243.MRI is recommended technique for(H)
a. Vascular malformation
b. Dementia, white matter disease
c. Demyelinating disease
d. All Ans
244.True regarding cysticerci in brain parenchyma
a. Size 5-20mm in diameter
b. Round
c. Both Ans
d. None
245.On CT scan bone appears as(H)
a. An area of high density due to greater x-ray attenuation Ans
b. An area of high density due to lesser x-ray attenuation
c. An area of low density due to greater x-ray attenuation
d. An area of low density due to lesser x-ray attenuation
246.Advantages of MDCT are all except(H)
a. Longer scan time Ans
b. Reduce patient and organ motion
c. CT perfusion study
d. CT angiography study
247. Role of iodinated contrast in CT scan all are except(H)
a. Identify vascular structures
b. Detect defect in blood brain-barrier
c. Pituitary gland, choroid plexus, dura normally enhance after contrast
d. High risk of allergic reactions Ans
248.CT scan is primary study of choice in the evaluation of (H)
a. Acute changes in mental status
b. Focal neurologic finding
c. Acute trauma to the brain and spine
d. Sub-acute /chronic hemorrhage Ans
249.CT is complimentary to MR in evaluation of(H)
a. The skull base
b. Orbit
c. Osseous structure of spine
d. All Ans
250.True about CT cisternography is (H)
a. Indicate of CSF fistula
b. Evaluation intracranial cisterns
c. Intrathecal contrast injection
d. All Ans
251.Cortical tuber, sub-ependymal nodule and giant cell astrocytoma are features of
a. Von hippel-lindau syndrome
b. Tuberous sclerosis Ans
c. Sturge-Weber syndrome
d. Neurofibromatosis
252.’Tram track’ gyriform calcification is feature of
a. Von hippel-lindau syndrome
b. Tuberous sclerosis
c. Sturge-Weber syndrome Ans
d. Neurofibromatosis
253.Which is intraconal orbital mass lesion
a. Optical nerve glioma/ meningioma Ans
b. Rhabdomyosarcoma
c. Orbital cellulitis
d. Dermoid
254.Intradural spinal mass is (C)
a. Meningioma Ans
b. Ependymoma
c. Astrocytoma
d. Prolapsed disc
255.Percentage of retinoblastoma showing calcification on CT(C)
a. Over 90% Ans
b. Over 70%
c. Over 60%
d. Over 50%
256.Tram track sign is noted in which orbital lesion (C)
a. Optical nerve Glioma
b. Optic nerve Meningioma Ans
c. Retinoblastoma
d. Toxocariasis
257.Most common type of cranial herniation is (H)
a. Transtentorial herniation Ans
b. Uncal herniation
c. Transfalacial herniation
d. Foraminal herniation
258.Kernohan-Waltman sign is seen (H)
a. Transtentorial herniation
b. Uncal herniation Ans
c. Transfalacial herniation
d. Foraminal herniation
259.MRI abnormalities is mesial temporal lobes are seen in
a. Para-neoplastic encephalitis
b. Autoimmune encephalitis
c. HHV-6 encephalitis
d. Multiple sclerosis Ans
260.Meningeal involvement in tuberculos meningitis is pronounced at
a. Convexity of brain
b. Base of brain Ans
c. Both
d. None
261.In what % of cases of tuberculosis meningitis has evidence of old pulmonary lesion or of miliary pattern
a. More than 50% Ans
b. More than 20%
c. More than 30%
d. More than 40%
262.Feature of aspergilloma is
a. Hypo-attenuation on CT
b. Decreased signal on T2W image Ans
c. Both
d. None
263.The investigation of choice for congenital malformation of ear -
a. HRCT
b. MRI Ans
c. USG
d. PET
264.The radiological hallmark of Antrochoanal polyp is -
a. Hazy maxilla
b. Enlarge ostia Ans
c. Deviated septum
d. All
265.The most common site of osteoma in PNS -
a. Frontal sinus Ans
b. Maxillary sinus
c. Sphenoid sinus
d. Ethmoidal sinus
266.The presence of nasal mass with widened pterygoplatine fissure in HRCT of face in adolescent boys suggest of -
a. Inverting papilloma
b. Juvenile angiofibroma Ans
c. Paranasal granuloma
d. None
267.Common multilocular radiolucent lesions of jaw are all except -
a. Odontogenic keratocyst
b. Central gaint cell Granuloma
c. Ameloblastoma
d. Hypercementosis Ans
268.Common unilocular radiolucent lesions of jaw are all except -
a. Alveolar abscess
b. Radicular cyst
c. Dentigerous cyst
d. Ameloblastoma Ans
269.Correctly matched are all except
a. Radicular cysts are derived from the cell rests of Malassez
b. Dentigerous cyst is associated with un-erupted teeth
c. Odontogenic cysts lack the more ballooning characteristics of odontogenic cysts
d. Multiple radiocular cysts are noted in Gorlin-Goltz syndrome Ans
270.Stafne cyst is noted in -
a. Jaw Ans
b. Humerous
c. Femur
d. Calcaneum
271.The image of choice for temporal bone lesions
a. CT Ans
b. MR
c. X-ray
d. USG
272.All are x-ray view for temporal bone except (DHINGRA)
a. Law’s view
b. Schuller’s view Ans
c. Stenver’s view
d. Water’s view
273.Schiller’s view of temporal bone is taken for all except (DHINGRA)
a. To see extent of pneumatization
b. Destruction of intercellular septa Ans
c. Cholesteatoma
d. Transverse fracture of petrous pyramid
274.Law’s view shows all except
a. Atti, aditus, and antrum Ans
b. Mastoid air cells
c. Tegmen
d. Lateral sinus plate
275.Schiller’s view shows all except
a. Mastoid air cells
b. Tegmen and lateral sinus plate
c. Antrum and upper part of attic
d. Cochlea Ans
276.Stenver’s view shows all except (DHINGRA)
a. Entire petrous pyramid
b. Internal auditory meatus
c. Labyrinth with its vestibule and chochlea
d. Mastoid antrum and attic Ans
277.Which iew of temporal bone shows the petrous pyramid bilaterally(DHINgRA)
a. Law’s view
b. Schuller’s view
c. Stenver’s view
d. Towne’s view Ans
278.Which view shows both petrous pyramid (DHINGRA)
a. Towne’s view
b. Trans-orbital view
c. Both Ans
d. None
279.Which view is usually taken for acoustic neuroma and apical petrositis
a. Law’s view
b. Schuller’s view
c. Stenver’s view
d. Towne’s view Ans
280.Water’s view of PNS shows all except (DHINGRA)
a. Frontal sinuses
b. Maxillary sinuses
c. Sphenoid sinuses
d. Ethmoid sinuses Ans
281.Maxillary sinuses are best seen in which view (DHINGRA)
a. Caldwell view
b. Water’s view Ans
c. Towne’s view
d. Basal view
282.Caldwell’s view shows all except
a. Frontal sinuses
b. Maxillary sinuses
c. Sphenoid Sinuses Ans
d. Ethmoid sinuses
283.Frontal sinuses are best seen in which view (DHINGRA)
a. Caldwell view Ans
b. Water’s view
c. Towne’s view
d. Basal view
284.Sphenoid sinuses are best seen in which view (DHINGRA)
a. Caldwell view
b. Water’s view
c. Towne’s view
d. Basal view Ans
285.X-ray for nasal fractures are all except (DHINGRA)
a. Lateral view
b. Occlusal view
c. Water’s view
d. Caldwell view Ans
286.X-ray view taken to differentiate a foreign body of the airway from that of food passage is (DHINGRA)
a. Lateral view of neck Ans
b. AP view of neck
c. Water’s view
d. Caldwell’s view
287. X-ray view taken to differentiate a foreign body of the larynx from that of esophagus is (DHINGRA)
a. Lateral view of neck
b. AP view of neck Ans
c. Water’s view
d. Caldwell’s view
288. Lyre sign on angiogram is noted in
a. Carotid body tumor of neck Ans
b. Angiofibroma
c. Subclavian steal syndrome
d. All
289. The gold standard for diagnosis of acoustic neuroma is (DHINGRA)
a. MRI
b. MRI with contrast Ans
c. CT scan
d. X-ray
290. Investigation of choice for intracanalicular acoustic neuroma
a. MRI
b. MRI with contrast Ans
c. CT scan
d. X-ray
291. Tripod fracture is noted in (DHINGRA)
a. Zygoma fracture Ans
b. Mandibular fracture
c. Maxillary fracture
d. Nasal bone fracture
292. Craniofacial Dysjunction is noted in
a. Le Fort I fracture
b. A. Le Fort ii fracture
c. Le Fort iii fracture Ans
d. Le Fort iv fracture
293. All are true regarding PNS except
a. Maxillary and Ethmoid sinuses are present at birth
b. Frontal and Ethmoid sinuses are not present at birth
c. Frontal sinus begins to develop at age of 4 years
d. Maxillary sinus reaches adult size by 5 years Ans
294. All are true regarding age of first radiologic evidence of PNS except(DHINGRA)
a. Maxillary sinus at 4-5 months after birth
b. Ethmoid sinus at 1 year
c. Frontal sinus 6 years
d. Sphenoid sinus at 10 years Ans
295. Antral sign on CT scan of head is pathognomonic of (DHINGRA)
a. Juvenile nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma Ans
b. Maxillary carcinoma
c. Adenoid
d. Antrochoanal polyp
296. Reinke edema is noted in (DHINGRA)\
a. Lung
b. Vocal cord Ans
c. Trachea
d. Hila
297. The preferred imaging for child with leukocoria -
a. MRI
b. CT Ans
c. USG
d. PET
298. CT of orbit shows calcification in intraocular mass in child less than 3 years. The most likely diagnosis
a. Retinoblastoma Ans
b. Optic nerve glioma
c. Meningioma
d. Hemangioblastoma
299.All are true regarding retinoblastoma except (GRAIGER)
a. Most common tumor of globe in children
b. 75% unilateral unifocal
c. Calcification in 95% cases
d. CT best for showing extension along optic nerve Ans
300.All are true regarding uveal melanoma except -
a. Most common intra-ocular malignancy in adults
b. Hypodense on CT Ans
c. Hyperintense on T1W
d. Hyperintense on T2W
301. Intra- ocular mass giving appearance of ‘Mushroom cloud’ on CT/MRI is
a. Retinoblastoma
b. Optic nerve glioma
c. Meningioma
d. Uveal melanoma Ans
302. The commonest cause of intra-orbital mass lesion in adults-
a. Pseudotumor Ans
b. Optic nerve glioma
c. Meningioma
d. Uveal melanoma
303. All are true regarding pseudotumor except -
a. Usually bilateral Ans
b. Involve tendon
c. Hypointense to fat on T2
d. Idiopathic inflammatory condition
304. Imaging shows bilateral enhancing orbital mass moulding to contour of orbit without bone destruction. The lesion is hypo-intense on T1W and hyper-intense on T2W. the most likely diagnosis is -
a. Pseudotumor
b. Lymphoma Ans
c. Meningioma
d. Uveal Melanoma
305. ‘Tram track’ sign on axial image and ‘doughnut sign’ on coronal image of orbit is seen in -
a. Optic nerve meningioma Ans
b. Optic nerve glioma
c. Retinoblastoma
d. Uveal melanoma
306. Which is intraconal orbital mass lesion
a. Optic nerve glioma/meningioma Ans
b. Rhabdomyosarcoma
c. Orbital cellulitis
d. Dermoid
307. Percentage of retinoblastoma showing calcification on CT(C)
a. Over 90% Ans
b. Over 70%
c. Over 60%
d. Over 50%
308. Tram track sign is noted in which orbital lesion (C)
a. Optic nerve glioma
b. Optic nerve meningioma Ans
c. Retinoblastoma
d. Toxocariasis
309. The anomalies of middle structures of brain with hypoplasia of optic nerves, optic chiasm, optic tracts is noted in (N)
a. Goldenhar’s syndrome
b. VHL
c. De Morseir’s syndrome Ans
d. Stargardt disease
310. The most common site fracture from blunt trauma of orbit(N)
a. Orbital floor Ans
b. Medial wall
c. Superior orbital fracture
d. Lateral wall fracture
311. Blow-out fracture of orbit involve(N)
a. Orbital floor Ans
b. Medial wall
c. Superior orbital fracture
d. Lateral wall fracture
312. Al are true regarding Graves ophthalmopathy except
a. Fusiform enlargement of extra- ocular muscle
b. Tendinous involvement Ans
c. Inferior rectus muscle most commonly affected
d. Reteo-orbital fat infiltration by inflammatory cells
313. The investigation of choice in evaluation of vision loss or suspected cranial nerve dysfunction (SUTTON)
a. CT
b. MRI Ans
c. USG
d. PET
314. The most common orbital mass in adult is (SUTTON)
a. Idiopathic inflammatory pseudotumor Ans
b. Malignant melanoma
c. Lymphoma
d. Rhabdomyosarcoma
315. The most common primary orbital malignancy in the pediatric age group
a. Lymphoma
b. Malignant melanoma
c. Retinoblastoma
d. Rhabdomyosarcoma Ans
316. The most common benign orbital tumors in adult is(SUTTON)
a. Lymphoma
b. Malignant melanoma
c. Cavernous haemangioma Ans
d. Lymphangioma
317. Causes of ring enhancing lesion in brain in HIV infected patients are all except
a. Toxoplasmosis
b. CNS lymphoma
c. TB/ Fungal/ bacteria abscess
d. Acute infarction Ans
318. Imaging modality of choice in patients with acute strokes(H)
a. Contrast CT of head
b. Non-contrast CT of head Ans
c. Contrast MRI of head
d. Non-contrast MRI of head
No comments